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NCLEX-RN questions and answers are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy by our professional experts. With our NCLEX-RN free demo, you can check out the questions quality, validity of our NCLEX practice torrent before you choose to buy it. You just need 20-30 hours to study with our NCLEX-RN practice dumps, and you can attend the actual test and successfully pass. The NCLEX-RN vce torrent will be the best and valuable study tool for your preparation.
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam is an important part of nursing education. Many nursing programs offer specialized courses and study materials to help students prepare for the exam. In addition, there are numerous test preparation resources available, including review books, online practice exams, and study groups. Most importantly, students should focus on developing a strong foundation of knowledge and clinical skills throughout their nursing education in order to be successful on the NCLEX-RN Exam.
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NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is a standardized exam that all nurses in the United States must pass to obtain their nursing license. NCLEX-RN Exam is developed and administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to test the knowledge and skills necessary for safe and effective nursing practice.
NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is a standardized exam that is designed to evaluate the knowledge, skills, and abilities of individuals who wish to practice as registered nurses in the United States. Administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN), the exam is used to ensure that nurse graduates possess the necessary competencies to provide safe and effective patient care.
NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q397-Q402):
NEW QUESTION # 397
A primipara is assessed on arrival to the postpartum unit. The nurse finds her uterus to be boggy. The nurse's first action should be to:
- A. Give the prescribed oxytocic drug
- B. Call the physician
- C. Assess her vital signs
- D. Massage her fundus
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should first implement independent and dependent measures to achieve uterine tone before calling the physician. (B) Assessment of vital signs will not help to restore uterine atony, which is the priority need. (C) Giving a prescribed oxytocic drug would be necessary ifthe uterus did not maintain tone with massage. (D) Fundal massage generally restores uterine tone within a few moments and should be attempted first.
NEW QUESTION # 398
A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse?
- A. Her blood pressure must be stable before starting bromocriptine.
- B. Bromocriptine stimulates the production of prolactin.
- C. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 5 days.
- D. Hypertension is a primary side effect.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. (B) Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. (C) Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. (D) The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.
NEW QUESTION # 399
A client has begun to exhibit signs of alcohol withdrawal. Her blood pressure has risen from 120/60 to
190/100, pulse is increased from 88 to 110 bpm, and she is irritable and agitated and has gross motor tremors of the hands. The nurse notifies the doctor. The nurse can anticipate that the doctor will order which of the following?
- A. A phenothiazine such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- B. A benzodiazepine such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
- C. An opiate such as propoxyphene napsylate (Darvocet)
- D. A tricyclic antidepressant such as amitriptyline (Elavil)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Benzodiazepines are drugs of choice for alcohol withdrawal. (B) This answer is correct. The drug has a sedative effect, is safe, and has an anticonvulsant effect.(C) This answer is incorrect. Amitriptyline is an antidepressant. (D) This answer is incorrect. Chlorpromazine is most effective in psychotic disorders.
NEW QUESTION # 400
A client was admitted to the hospital for a TURP. Within 48 hours of admission and 12 hours postoperatively, both the blood pressure and pulse increased. He became agitated, thought snakes were crawling on his arms and legs, and generally became unmanageable. He pulled out his IV and urinary catheter in attempt to rid himself of the snakes. He was sweating profusely. The admission nurse's notes indicated that the client admitted to "having a few drinks now and then." He is probably experiencing which of the following?
- A. Major psychotic depression
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Adjustment disorder with mixed features
- D. Delirium tremens
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Symptoms of psychotic depression must exist for at least 2 weeks, and the symptoms must represent a change from previous functioning. (B) Delirium tremens occur approximately on the second or third day following cessation or reduction of alcohol intake. Symptoms would be all those described in the situation. (C) Symptoms exhibited by this client are not exhibited in clients with anxiety disorders, who manifest excessive or unrealistic worry about life circumstances for at least 6 months. (D) Symptoms for adjustment disorders with mixed emotional features (e.g., depression and anxiety) are different from those exhibited by the client in this situation.
NEW QUESTION # 401
A client is 2 hours post ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. How should the nurse position the client?
- A. Bed flat on operative side
- B. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on operative side
- C. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on nonoperative side
- D. Bed flat on nonoperative side
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Elevation of head on nonoperative side would be the position for the late postoperative period. (B) Positioning on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and on the shunt valve. Elevation of head in immediate postoperative period may cause rapid reduction of cerebrospinal fluid. (C) Placement on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and shunt valve. (D) Flat position on nonoperative side in the immediate postoperative period prevents pressure on shunt valve and rapid reduction in cerebrospinal fluid.
NEW QUESTION # 402
......
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